Saturday, August 1, 2009

what is the meaning of the term "immediately" Supreme Court of India

CASE NO.:
Appeal (civil)  6129 of 2000

PETITIONER:
Rosali V.

RESPONDENT:
Taico Bank and Ors

DATE OF JUDGMENT: 23/01/2007

BENCH:
S.B. Sinha & Markandey Katju

JUDGMENT:
J U D G M E N T


S.B. Sinha, J.


  A judgment and order dated 8.01.1999 passed by the High Court of
Karnataka at Bangalore in CRP No. 3528 of 1998 is in question before us,
which arises in the following factual matrix.

  M/s. Nellai Small Match Producers Service Industrial Co-op. Society
Ltd. filed a suit against N. Dharmaraj, Respondent No. 2 herein in the Court
of Principal Subordiante Judge in the State of Tamil Nadu for realization of
some amount owing and due to it.  The said suit was decreed.  The said
decree was transferred for execution to the Court of City Civil Judge,
Bangalore.  The matter ultimately was transferred to the Court of the 17th
Additional City Civil Judge, Banaglore.

  A proclamation of sale of immovable property bearing No. 1138/8, II
Main Road, Vijaynagar, Bangalore was issued on 21.10.1988 whereupon the
auction sale was held.  In the said auction sale Smt. Mahadevi S.
Havannavar became the highest bidder having given a bid for a sum of Rs.
3,25,000/-.  The said deal was accepted by the learned Executing Court on
26.10.1988.  It is stated that the said sale was conducted at about 4.00 p.m.
on the said date and keeping in view of the fact that the banks at that time
were closed, the court directed the auction purchaser to deposit the amount
by the next day in the following terms:

"Sale proclamation and warrant not served at spot. 
TRD files vakalath for the bidder did accepted
(sic), permitted to deposit 25% of the sale amount
by tomorrow.  Property is free from encumbrances
as it stands for balance of consideration by 11.11."


  It is not in dispute that pursuant to or in furtherance of the said
direction, the auction purchaser deposited the amount of 25% of the sale
amount on 27.10.1988 and deposited the balance amount on 11.11.1988. 

  Smt. Leelavathi, Respondent No. 3 herein, in the meanwhile, had
instituted a suit in the Court of Addl. City Civil Judge Bangalore being O.S.
No. 2493 of 1981 on 17.08.1981 for specific performance of contract against
Respondent No. 2 in respect of the self-same property wherefor a sum of Rs.
1,05,000/- said to have been paid by way of advance.  The said suit was
decreed by the said Civil Judge by a judgment and order dated 20.04.1985. 
An appeal was preferred thereagainst before the High Court which was
dismissed by an order dated 6/8.03.1996.

  After the auction sale was confirmed, Respondent No. 3 appears to
have filed an application purported to be under Order XXI Rule 97 of the
Code of Civil Procedure (Code).  It is not in dispute that by an order dated
11.11.1988 as no objection was filed and the entire amount had been
deposited, the sale was confirmed and the sale certificate was directed to be
issued to the auction purchaser.  Sale certificate on a stamp paper, which had
been furnished in the meanwhile, was issued by the Court on 17.11.1988.

  It is also stated that the property in question had been allotted by the
Bangalore Development Authority to the original owner.  The Bangalore
Development Authority by a registered deed of sale dated 16.01.1990
transferred the property in favour of Shri Sangamesh G. Havannavar,
husband of the auction purchaser Smt. Mahadevi S. Havannavar as in the
meantime she had died.

  On or about 5.02.1992, the said Shri Sangamesh G. Havannavar
transferred his right, title and interest in the said property in favour of the
appellant herein in terms of a registered deed of sale dated 5.02.1992.

  It is contended that the appellant obtained licence from the appropriate
authority for renovation of the existing ground floor and for construction of
the first floor and pursuant to grant of sanction in this behalf had made
constructions upon incurring a cost of Rs. 8,00,000/- therefor.  He is said to
have been residing therein.

  Appellant herein was not impleaded as a party in the said execution
proceedings.  Respondent No. 3, however, obtained warrant of delivery of
possession of the said property in execution of the decree of specific
performance passed in her favour.  On or about 01.08.1998, the appellant
obstructed in taking possession pursuant to the said warrant of delivery of
possession and eventually filed an application under Order XXI Rule 97, 98,
100 and 101 of the Code.  From the objection filed by Respondent No. 3, it
transpired that the auction sale had allegedly been set aside at the instance of
the decree holder on the premise that the sale was void as it was confirmed
before expiry of 30 days from the date of acceptance of the bid and other
litigations by an order dated 27.09.1996 which is to the following effect:

"Dhr. KAB
Jdr. SGK
To hear Dhr. and to produce copy of orders in
RFA.
Sri MRG for Dhr submits that the sale is void in
view of the confirmation before 30 days and other
litigations.  Hence sale is set aside for these
reasons."


 The said order appears to be vague.  No reason has been assigned in
support thereof.  On what ground the decree holder was permitted to raise
the said  contention was not disclosed. 

 A revision application was filed by the appellant herein before the
High Court which by reason of the impugned judgment has been dismissed. 
It appears that the vendor of the appellant had also filed a revision
application and the same was also disposed of by reason of the said
judgment.

  The High Court in its impugned judgment, however, opined that in
view of the fact that the 25% of the bid amount was not deposited on
26.10.1988 and was deposited on 27.10.1988, the provision of Order XXI
Rule 84 was not complied with and in that view of the matter the auction
sale was bad in law. For arriving at the said finding, reliance was placed
upon a decision of this Court in Manilal Mohanlal Shah and Ors. v. Sardar
Sayed Ahmed Sayed Mahamad and Anr. [AIR 1954 SC 349].

  Mr. T.L. Viswanath Iyer, learned senior counsel appearing on behalf
of the appellant, would submit that the the predecessor of the appellant
having deposited the 25% amount on 27.10.1988 pursuant to or in
furtherance of the order passed by the learned Judge himself, the same
cannot be said to be in contravention of  the provisions of Order XXI Rule
84 of the Code. 

  It was submitted that had an opportunity of hearing been given to the
appellant, he could have shown that the bid having been accepted at 4
O'Clock, there was no other way to deposit the 25% of the bid amount in the
bank and only with a view to obviate the same, the learned Judge directed
the auction purchaser to deposit the said amount on the next day.

  Mr. Iyer would urge that, in any event, non-compliance of Order XXI
Rule 84 of the Code having not been raised by the decree holder, the High
Court committed a manifest error in relying thereupon as also the decision of
this Court in Manilal Mohanlal Shah (supra).

  Mr. S.S. Javali, learned senior counsel appearing on behalf of the
respondents, however, would submit that the judgment debtor and
Respondent No. 2 herein had colluded with the auction purchaser with a
view to defeat the decree of specific performance of contract.  The learned
counsel argued that in the first appeal preferred by Respondent No. 2 against
the judgment and decree dated 20.04.1985 passed in favour of Respondent
No. 3, Respondent No. 2  had undertaken not to sell or transfer the said
property.  The learned counsel contended that the auction sale being mala
fide, this Court should not interfere with the impugned judgment.

  In view of the rival contentions of the parties, as noticed hereinbefore,
the questions which would arise for our consideration are:

(i) What would be the meaning of the term "immediately" occurring
in Order XXI Rule 84 of the Code, in view of the peculiar facts
and circumstances of this case?
(ii) Whether the sale was void only because it was confirmed before
expiry of the period of 30 days.

  Order XXI Rule 84(1) of the Code reads as under:

"84. Deposit by purchaser and re-sale on default.--
(1) On every sale of immovable properly the
person declared to be the purchaser shall pay
immediately after such declaration a deposit of
twenty-five per cent on the amount of his
purchase-money to the officer or other person
conducting the sale, and in default of such deposit,
the property shall forthwith be re-sold."
 

  What would be the meaning of the term "immediately" came up for
consideration before this Court, as noticed hereinbefore, in Manilal
Mohanlal Shah (supra) wherein it was held:

"Having examined the language of the relevant
rules and the judicial decisions bearing upon the
subject we are of opinion that the provisions of the
rules requiring the deposit of 25 per cent of the
purchase-money immediately on the person being
declared as a purchaser and the payment of the
balance within 15 days of the sale are mandatory
and upon non-compliance with these provisions
there is no sale at all. The rules do not contemplate
that there can be any sale in favour of a purchaser
without depositing 25 per cent of the purchase-
money in the first instance and the balance within
15 days. When there is no sale within the
contemplation of these rules, there can be no
question of material irregularity in the conduct of
the sale. Non-payment of the price on the part of
the defaulting purchaser renders the sale
proceedings as a complete nullity. The very fact
that the Court is bound to re-sell the property in the
event of a default shows that the previous
proceedings for sale are completely wiped out as if
they do not exist in the eye of law. We hold,
therefore, that in the circumstances of the present
case there was no sale and the purchasers acquired
no rights at all."

  We are, however, in this case, faced with a different situation.

  Having regard to the fact that the appellant had explained that it was
not possible for his predecessor in interest to deposit the 25% of the amount
immediately after such declaration, as the banks, at that point of time, were
closed and furthermore having regard to the fact that presumably the court in
that view of the matter had directed the auction purchaser to deposit the
amount on the next day, we are of the opinion that it satisfies the
requirements of law.

  It is a well-settled principle of interpretation of a statute that where
literal meaning leads to anomaly and absurdity, it should be avoided. [See 
Raghunath Rai Bareja and Another v. Punjab National Bank and Others
2006 (13) SCALE  511]

  It is equally well-settled that the Parliament must be held to have
intended to lay down a reasonable statute unless a plain meaning of the Act
leads to different conclusion.  It is trite that a statute must be read
reasonably.  [See Ashok Lanka and Another v. Rishi Dixit and Others 
(2005) 5 SCC 598]

  In Lalit Mohan Pandey v. Pooran Singh and Ors. [(2004) 6 SCC 626],
this Court opined:

"A statute must be construed having regard to the
legislative intent. It has to be meaningful. A
construction which leads to manifest absurdity
must not be preferred to a construction which
would fulfill the object and purport of the
legislative intent."

  [See also State of Himachal Pradesh and Ors. v. Surinder Singh
Banolta, 2006 (12) SCALE 571]

  It is the duty of the court to accept a construction which promotes the
object of a legislation.  [Sanjay Dutt v. State through CBI Bombay (II)
(1994) 5 SCC 410]

  It is also a well-settled principle of law that common sense
construction rule should be taken recourse to in certain cases.

  In Halsbury's Laws of England (Fourth Edition) Volume 44(1)
(Reissue), it is stated:

"1392. Commonsense Construction Rule. It is a
rule of the common law, which may be referred to
as the commonsense construction rule, that when
considering, in relation to the facts of the instant
case, which of the opposing constructions of the
enactment would give effect to the legislative
intention, the court should presume that the
legislator intended common sense to be used in
construing the enactment.

1477. Nature of presumption against absurdity.  It
is presumed that Parliament intend that the court,
when considering, in relation to the facts of the
instant case, which of the opposing constructions
of an enactment corresponds to its legal meaning,
should find against a construction which produces
an absurd result, since this is unlikely to have been
intended by Parliament.  Here 'absurd' means
contrary to sense and reason, so in this context the
term 'absurd' is used to include a result which is
unworkable or impracticable, inconvenient,
anomalous or illogical, futile or pointless, artificial
or productive of a disproportionate counter-
mischief.

1480. Presumption against anomalous or illogical
result.  It is presumed that Parliament intends that
the Court, when considering, in relation to the facts
of the instant case, which of the opposing
constructions of an enactment corresponds to its
legal meaning, should find against a construction
that creates an anomaly or otherwise produces an
irrational or illogical result.  The presumption may
be applicable where on one construction a benefit
is not available in like cases, or a detriment is not
imposed in like cases, or the decision would turn
on an immaterial distinction or an anomaly would
be created in legal doctrine.  Where each of the
constructions contended for involves some
anomaly then, in so far as the court uses anomaly
as a test, it has to balance the effect of each
construction and determine which anomaly is
greater.  It may be possible to avoid the anomaly
by the exercise of a discretion.  It may be,
however, that the anomaly is clearly intended,
when effect must be given to the intention.  The
court will pay little attention to a proclaimed
anomaly if it is purely hypothetical, and unlikely to
arise in practice."


  In Bombay Dyeing & Mfg. Co. Ltd. (3) v. Bombay Environmental
Action Group and Others [(2006) 3 SCC 434], this Court observed:

"It is also a fundamental proposition of
construction that the effect of deletion of words
must receive serious consideration while
interpreting a statute as this has been repeatedly
affirmed by this Court in a series of judgments"


  While applying the principles of interpretation, the courts are also
required to keep in mind the following two well-settled principles of law:

(i) Actus Curiae neminem gravabit (an act of Court shall prejudice no
man) [See Satyabrata Biswas and Others v. Kalyan Kumar Kisku
and Others (1994) 2 SCC 266 Ram Chandra Singh v. Savitri Devi
and Ors., (2003) 8 SCC 319,  Board of Control For Cricket in India
and Another Vs. Netaji Cricket Club and Others (2005) 4 SCC 741
and Union of India v. Pramod Gupta (D) By LRs. and Ors. (2005)
12 SCC 1]; and
(ii) lex non cogit ad impossibilia (the law does not compel a man to do
that what he cannot possibly perform) [See Ram Chandra Singh
(supra) and Board of Control For Cricket in India (supra)]

  The term "immediately", therefore, must be construed having regard
to the aforementioned principles.  The term has two meanings.  One,
indicating the relation of cause and effect and the other, the absence of time
between two events.  In the former sense, it means proximately, without
intervention of anything, as opposed to "mediately".  In the latter sense, it
means instantaneously.

  The term "immediately", is, thus, required to be construed as meaning
with all reasonable speed, considering the circumstances of the case.  [See
Halsbury's Laws of England, 4th Edition, Vol. 23, para 1618, p. 1178]

  In a given situation, the term "immediately" may mean "within
reasonable time.  Where an act is to be done within reasonable time, it must
be done immediately.  [See M/s. Gangavishan Heeralal v. M/s. Gopal
Digambar Jain and Others, AIR 1980 MP 119 at 123, Keshava S. Jamkhandi
v. Ramachandra S. Jamkhandi, AIR 1981 Kar 97 at 101, Ramnarayan v.
State of M.P., AIR 1962 MP 93 at 98, R. v. Inspector of Taxes, (1971) 3 All
ER 394 at 398 and R. v. HU Inspector of Taxes, (1972) 1 All ER 545 at 555]

  In Bombay Dyeing (supra), this Court observed:

"In 'The Interpretation and Application of
Statutes', Reed Dickerson, at p.135 discussed the
subject while dealing with the importance of
context of the statute in the following terms:

"... The essence of the language is to
reflect, express, and perhaps even affect
the conceptual matrix of established ideas
and values that identifies the culture to
which it belongs. For this reason, language
has been called "conceptual map of human
experience"."

  In K.S. Muthu v. T. Govindarajulu and Anr. [2000 (4) SCALE 175],
this Court opined:

 "In the circumstances when the Appellant was
not in a position to perform the direction given by
the Court in view of the holiday, the Court cannot
expect the Appellant to perform what is
impossible..."

 

  In Crawford on Statutory Construction at page 539, it is stated :

"271. Miscellaneous Implied Exceptions from the
Requirements of  Mandatory Statutes, In General.-
Even where a statute is clearly mandatory or
prohibitory, yet, in many instances, the courts will
regard certain conduct beyond the prohibition of
the statute through the use of various devices or
principles.  Most, if not all of these devices find
their jurisdiction in considerations of justice.  It is
a well known fact that often to enforce the law to
its letter produces manifest injustice, for frequently
equitable and humane considerations, and other
considerations of a closely related nature, would
seem to be of a sufficient caliber to excuse or
justify a technical violation of the  law."     

  [See also Dove Investments Pvt. Ltd. and Ors. v. Gujarat Industrial
Inv. Corporation Ltd. and Anr. (2006) 2 SCC 619].

 We, therefore, are clearly of the opinion that the High Court was not
correct in holding that in the facts and circumstances of the case, the
provisions of Order XXI Rule 84 had not been complied with.

  It is interesting to note that in Dakshayani v. Branch Manager &
Others [ILR 1997 Kar. 1940], interpreting Order XXI, Rule 84, the
Karnataka High Court itself held

"4. On that basis if we interpret the law though
there is no power in the Court to extend the time
fixed by the statute still the expression
immediately is capable of taking within its sweep a
situation where an act is impossible of
performance on the day on which the auction is
held as it happened in Savithramma's case when
the bank itself was on strike and no deposit could
have been made in the bank or in the event the
auction sale is held after Court hours, a receipt
order in that regard cannot be obtained for deposit
of such an amount. Such amount could be
deposited only after obtaining a receipt Order. If
next day also happens to be a holiday, the day
immediately thereafter coming up which is a
working day will be the day on which such act will
have to be performed. If any other interpretation is
given it would stultify the very object of law"

  We may consider another aspect of the matter.  With a view to
consider the question as to whether he intended to abide by the provisions of
a statute or the order of a court, his conduct is relevant.  If one intended to
comply with order of a court but by reason of fortuitous circumstances, he is
not in a position to do so, the statute would not be held to be operating
harshly in such a case.

  We, therefore, are of the opinion that having regard to the order of the
court and the other circumstances stated by the appellant, his predecessor-in-
interest not being able to deposit the 25% of the bid amount upon acceptance
of bid did not render the auction sale void, as was opined by the High Court.

  We may also notice that the auction purchaser had deposited the full
purchase money within the time stipulated in terms of Order XXI Rule 85 of
the Code.

  We do not know under what circumstances the decree holder himself
filed an application for setting aside the sale.  Only because the sale was
confirmed within a period of 30 days from the date of acceptance of the bid,
the same by itself, in our opinion, was not decisive to set aside the sale after
8 years.  We, therefore, are unable to agree with the findings of the
Executing Court or the High Court. 

 The impugned orders are set aside.  However, we make it clear that
we have not gone into the other contentions raised by the respondents herein. 
All other contentions, therefore, may be determined by the Executing Court,
if raised, in accordance with law.

  The appeal is allowed.  We, however, make no order as to costs.

GIMC Moot 2009

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Judges of GIMC 2009

 

Final Round

 

1)      Hon'ble Mr.  Justice G.S. Singhvi, Judge, Supreme Court of India

 

2)      Mr. Ram Jethmalani- Senior Advocate, Supreme Court of India

 

3)      Mr. A.K. Ganguly- Senior Advocate, Supreme Court of India

 

4)      Mr. V. Lakshmikumaran, Managing Partner, Lakshmikumaran & Sreedharan,

         New Delhi

 

5)      Mr. Christopher Staker, Former Principal Legal Secretary, International Court of

         Justice

 

6)      Ms. Susan Karmanian, Associate Dean for International & Comparative Legal

         Studies, George Washington School of Law, USA

 

7)      Mr. Bimal N. Patel, Vice- Chancellor, Gujarat National Law University

 

 

Semi Final Rounds

 

1)      Hon'ble Mr. Justice A.S. Quresi, Judge, High Court of Gujarat

 

2)      Hon'ble Mr. Justice Mohit S. Shah, Judge, High Court of Gujarat

 

3)      Dr. M.N. Bheemesh, Senior Advisor & Advocate, ALMT Legal, Bangalore

 

4)      Dr. V.D. Sharma, Professor of Law, Indian Society of International Law, New

         Delhi

 

5)      Mr. Jayaraj C., Advocate, Supreme Court of India

 

6)      Mr. Rajshekhar Rao, Advocate, Supreme Court of India

 

 

Quarter Final Rounds

 

1)      Mr. Rishabh Sancheti, Advocate, High Court of Rajasthan

 

2)      Prof. N.K. Pathak, Associate Dean, Gujarat University

 

3)      Dr. Rabindra Pratap, Assistant Professor of Law, Indraprasth University, New

         Delhi,

 

4)      Mr. Ranjit Sangle, Advocate, High Court of Bombay

 

5)      Mr. Sachin Malhan, Partner, Rainmakers

 

6)      Mr. Deepto Roy, Senior Associate, Amarchand & Mangaldas & Suresh & Shroff, 

         Mumbai

 

Preliminary Rounds

 

1)      Ms. Padma Priya Advocate,  Supreme Court of India

 

2)      Mr. Shree Nidhi, Faculty of Law CMR College of Law, Bangalore and Partner Lex

         Parle

 

3)      Mr. Nikunt Raval, Advocate, High Court of Gujarat

 

4)      Ms. Sushma Nagraj, Advocate, High Court of Karnataka

 

5)      Mr. Nachiket Joshi , Advocate, Supreme Court of India

 

6)      Mr. Animesh Sinha, Advocate, Supreme Court of India

 

7)      Ms. Nisha Harichandran, Senior Associate, Amarchand & Mangaldas & Suresh  

         & Shroff, New Delhi

 

8)      Mr. Shamik Sanjanwala, Advocate, Supreme Court of India

 

9)      Mr. Rohit Das, Partner, Rohit Das & Sons, Kolkata

 

 

 

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Arora Products versus CCE 2009 (235) ELT 0818 (Raj.) 2009 (091) RLT 0890 (Raj.)

From : http://lawcrux.org/data4T/cl/clhigh/69612.htm

2009 (235) ELT 0818 (Raj.) 2009 (091) RLT 0890 (Raj.)

IN THE HIGH COURT OF JUDICATURE FOR RAJASTHAN AT JODHPUR

N.P. Gupta and Deo Narayan Thanvi, JJ.

Arora Products

Versus

Addl. Commissioner of Central Excise

Central Excise Appeal No. 6 of 2005, decided on 19-3-2008

Cases Quoted -

Commissioner v. Machino Monteil - 2006(07)LCX0133 Eq 2006 (202) ELT 0398 (P & H) = 2006(07)LCX0133 Eq 2006 (004) STR 0177 (P& H) - Referred [Paras 5,6,10,12]

Commissioner v. Om);ar Steel Tubes Pvt. Ltd. - 2007(08)LCX0328 Eq 2008 (221) ELT 0200 (P & H) - Distinguished [Paras 5,6,12]

Raj Spinning & Weaving Mills Ltd. - Referred [Para 14]

Union of India v. Perfect Thread Mills Ltd. - 2009 (234) ELT 0049 (Raj.) - Referred [Paras 4,6,14]

Union of India v. T.P.L. Industries Ltd. - 2007(03)LCX0337 Eq 2007 (214) ELT 0506 (Raj.) - Relied on [Paras 4,6,13]

Advocated By -

Shri Anjay Kotharijor the Appellant.
S/Shri Rishabh Sancheti and V.K. Mathur, for the Respondent.

[Order per : N.P. Gupta, J.]. -

This appeal has been filed by the assessee against the impugned judgment of the learned Tribunal dt. 15-4-2004. The appeal was admitted on 24-5-2005, by framing the following substantial questions of law :-

"(i) Whether any discretion vests on the authorities under the Central Excise Act in quantifying the penalty imposable under Section 11 AC of the Central Excise Act, 1944?

(ii) Whether in appeal filed by the Revenue against the order of the Commissioner of Central Excise (Appeals) setting aside the penalty levied against the assessee, the Tribunal was justified in not entertaining the plea of the assessee that in case appeal is allowed, the quantum of penalty may be reduced, on the ground that no cross-examination has been filed?

(iii) Whether mens rea in any form is part of consideration before penalty under Section 11 AC can be imposed?"


2. We have heard learned Counsel for the parties.


3. The skeleton facts are, that on 5-10-2001, during course of transit check, vehicle No. RJ1G-4585 was intercepted, and on checking it was found that it was carrying 20 bags (585 Kgs) chewing tobacco (Natraj Brand) registered under the name and brand, being product of the assessee, was not carrying the necessary invoice. Thereupon the factory was visited, invoices were checked, and then, on 1-4-2002 show cause notice was issued to the assessee. The learned Additional Commissioner after completing all necessary proceedings passed the order dt. 25-6-2002, imposing the penalties mentioned therein. Against that order an appeal was filed, which was partly allowed by the learned Commissioner (Appeals), and the penalty imposed under Section 11 AC, being penalty equal to duty, was set aside, on the ground, that mens rea to evade duty was conspicuously absent. For that the learned Commissioner relied upon certain facts and circumstances. Against this order the Department filed appeal before the learned Tribunal, and the learned Tribunal allowed the same, finding, that the plea of the assessee, that the slip was left by the proprietor of the respondent firm with the Munshi, to issue the excise invoice, but the Munshi did not issue the same, being unfounded, and unappealable to reason, therefore, the order was set aside.


4. Arguing the appeal, learned Counsel for the assessee relied upon two judgments of this Court; one being in D.B. Central Excise Appeal No. 16/06 Union of India v. M/s. T.P.L. Industries Ltd. & Ors., decided on 2-3-2007 - 2007(03)LCX0337 Eq 2007 (214) ELT 0506 (Raj.) which judgment was followed in another D.B. Central Excise Appeal No. 41/2006, Union of India v. M/s. Perfect Thread Mills Ltd., decided on 10-8-2007 [2009 (234) ELT 0049 (Raj.)], and contended, that in view of the provisions of Section HAC(2b), since the assessee had deposited the requisite duty, even before issuance of show cause notice, no penalty under Section 11 AC could be imposed, and therefore, the impugned order of the learned Tribunal is liable to be set aside.


5. On the other hand, learned Counsel for the respondent relied upon two judgments of Punjab and Haryana High Court; one being in Central Excise Appeal No. 13 of 2005, decided on 25-7-2006, reported in 2006(07)LCX0133 Eq 2006 (202) ELT 0398 (P&H) = 2006(07)LCX0133 Eq 2006 (004) STR 0177 (P&H), Commissioner of Central Excise v. Machino Mon-tell (I) Ltd., and the other being in Commissioner of Central Excise v. Omkar Steel Tubes (P) Ltd. reported in 2007(08)LCX0328 Eq 2008 (221) ELT 0200 (P&H), mis judgment is rendered on 28-8-2007, to contend, that mere payment of duty before issuance of show cause notice, cannot be a ground to contend, that penalty under Section 11 AC could not be imposed.


6. We have heard learned Counsel for the parties, and have gone through the impugned judgments, and the cases cited at the Bar.


7. Before proceeding further, it may be observed, that as appears from the order of the learned Additional Commissioner dt. 25-6-2002, that the duty was paid by the assessee, on 8-10-2001.


8. Thus all said and done this much is not in dispute, that the leviable excise duty had been paid before issuance of show cause notice, inasmuch as, as observed above, show cause notice was issued on 1-4-2002, and the duty was deposited vide TR-6 Challan No. 13, dated 8-10-2001.


9. Since the only question argued before us is, on the anvil of non-leviability of penalty under Section 11 AC, in view of the provisions of Section 11A(2B), we need not go into the question as framed in the order dt. 24-5-2005, and decide the appeal only on the question, as to whether on the face of provisions of Section 11A(2B), penalty under Section 11AC can be imposed, or not.


10. We propose to first take up the cases cited on behalf of the respondent being in Machino Montell (I) Ltd.'s case. Learned Counsel laid much stress on paras 7 and 8 thereof, wherein it has been held, that the provisions of Section 11 AC incorporates liability to pay penalty in the situation mentioned there^ and once a case is covered by the situation mentioned in the Section, mere posit, prior to issuance of show cause notice under Section 11A of the Act, will not necessarily negate the situation mentioned in the said section. In that case the matter related to the year 1999, and show cause notice was issued on 19-6-200, while the amount was deposited under protest on 23-5-2001. Then, in para 8 the submission of the assessee has been noticed, on the anvil of Section 11A(2B) and Section 11A(2C), interpreted the prohibition against imposition of penalty in that event of deposit having been made prior to issuance of show cause notice, and the submission of the Revenue was recorded, to the effect, that reliance was placed on explanation, which limited the applicability of sub-section 2B. However, the Bench did not go into the question, by observing, as under :-

"....we need not go into this question in view of Sub-section 2C of Section 11 of the Act (sic 11 A), which makes it clear that subjection 2B will not apply where duty has become payable prior to the date on which Finance Bill, 2001 was passed. Present case being governed by sub-section 2C of Section 11, issuance of notice under Section 11 was not barred."


11. We may at once observe, that the Finance Bill, 2001 became Finance Act No. 14 of 2001, w.e.f. 11-5-2001, while in the present case, as noticed above, the instant case relates to 5-10-2001, which is little short of five months later than the commencement of Finance Act of 2001. In that view of the matter, per force this judgment itself, so also in view of the language of sub-sections (2B) and (2C), the bar of Section 2B is clearly attracted.


12. Then, so far as Omkar Steel Tubes (P) Ltd.'s case is concerned, that was a case in which the appeal of the revenue was dismissed by recording a finding, question of mens rea in favour of the assessee. Then, reference was made to Machino Montell's case, in the manner, that the Tribunal below had relied upon the judgment in Machino Montell's case, which was over turned by the Division Bench of the Court, vide judgment dt. 25-7-2006, and therefore, mere fact, that duty has been paid before issuance of show cause notice, would not result into non-application of Section 11AC, and the penalty could still be imposed. From this judgment, it is not clear, as to what was the relevant date, inasmuch as in the earlier part we have found, that the order confirming the duty under Section 11A of the Act was passed; by the adjudicating authority on 13-8-2005. Then, the relevant thing to be noticed is, as observed above, the Machino Montell's case was a case on facts, depending upon facts of its own, relating to falling within a particular time zone, viz. as to whether it falls within a period before the date on which the Finance Bill received assent of the President, or within the time zone subsequent thereto. Since in the case in hand, the matter relates to the subsequent date, this judgment cannot help the Revenue, on any stand point.


13. Then a look at the judgment in M/s. T.P.L Industries' case, cited by the learned Counsel for the appellant, makes it clear, that a positive finding has been given therein as under :-

"The proposition appears to be well settled that where the duty has been deposited before issuance of show cause notice under Section 11A & Section 11AB of the Central Excise Act, 1944, no action under Section 11AC of the said Act for imposition of penalty can be initiated or taken. The reason is obvious. As on the date show cause notice is issued, there is no short levy of Duty for which such notice can be issued."

14. May be, that in the two cases, decided by this judgment, as we get from the judgment, that in one of the appeals decided thereby, being that in the case of M/s. Raj Spinning & Weaving Mills Ltd., even the show cause notice was given on 27-3-2001, and therefore, to that extent, the proposition may be open to some doubt on the face of language of Section 11A(2C), but then, the judgment in M/s. Perfect Thread Mills Ltd. related to surprise visit to the factory conducted on 10/11-1-2003, obviously after receipt of the assent of the President to the Finance Bill of 2001, and as observed above, the case in hand is related to that period.


15. In that view of the matter, in our view, on the face of a combined reading of provisions of Sections 11A(2B) and (2C), in view of the fact, that the matter relates to the period subsequent to receipt of the assent of President to the Finance Bill, 2001, in view of the fact, that leviable duty has been deposited immediately on 8-10-2001, while show cause notice was issued on 1-4-2002 only, no penalty under Section 11AC could be imposed.


16. Accordingly, the question stands answered. The appeal is allowed. The impugned judgment of the learned Tribunal is set aside, and the appellate order of the learned Commissioner Annexure-2 dt. 1-10-2002, is restored.

Equivalent 2009 (235) ELT 0818 (Raj.)

Equivalent 2009 (091) RLT 0890 (Raj.)

Thursday, July 30, 2009

Mahadev Marmo versus Union of India 2009 (235) ELT 0773 (Raj.)

From :http://lawcrux.org/data4T/cl/clhigh/69597.htm

2008(09)LCX0326

IN THE HIGH COURT OF JUDICATURE FOR RAJASTHAN AT JODHPUR

N.P. Gupta and Kishan Swaroop Chaudhari, JJ.

Mahadev Marmo Pvt. Ltd.

Versus

Union of India

Civil Writ No. 5078 of 2008, decided on 15-9-2008

Departmental Clarification Quoted-

DGFT Policy Circuar No. 1 (RE-2007), dated 26-7-2007 [Para 2]

DGFT Policy Circular No. 12 (RE-2008), dated 27-6-2008 [Para 3]

DGFT Policy Circular No. 13 (RE-2008), dated 30-6-2008 [Paras 1,3,4]

Advocated By -

S/Shri Dinesh Mehta, Ravi Bhansali, Rishabh Sancheti, P.S. Bhati, Ajeet Kumar Sharma and Shri Vineet Kumar Mathur,for the Appearing Parties.

[Order]. -

By this petition, the petitioner seeks to have declared illegal, arbitrary and unconstitutional, the following words in Policy Circular No. 13 (RE-2008) dt. 30-6-2008 produced with the writ petition as Annexure-4 "units who have been granted marble block import licence under previous licensing years or are eligible to avail licence in the current licensing year (2008-09) under SIL category". Other relief as claimed is, that the petitioner may be declared entitled to avail import licence under Annexure-4.


2. Necessary facts are, that according to the petitioner, in exercise of powers conferred by Section 5 of Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act, 1992, the concerned Ministry published Foreign Trade Policy 2004-2009, incorporating the provisions, relating to export and import of goods and service. Then, the Director General of Foreign Trade, New Delhi has issued annual supplement for the year 2007-08 and 2008-09, and the said Director General issued a Policy Circular No. 1 (RE-2007) dt. 26-7-2007, issuing guidelines for import of rough marble blocks/slabs for the year 2007-08, laying down the entitlement or quota of import of rough marble blocks, subject to ceiling provided therein, however, out of the said quota, individual importers were allocated their share of total quantity of import. Accordingly, the petitioner has been availing the quota. This licence was issued to the petitioner for import, under Special Import Licences (SIL). It is alleged, that till the year 2007-08, the import licences have been issued, only under SIL, and there was no policy for entrepreneurs, other than those availing licence under SIL.


3. It is then alleged, that for the year 2008-09, the Director General issued Policy Circular No. 12 dt. 27-6-2008, laying down guidelines for import of rough marble blocks for the year 2008-09, and the upper ceiling of the total import was fixed at 1.40 lacs metric ton. This Circular has been produced as Annexure-3. Then, the said Director also issued a Policy Circular No. 13 dt. 30-6-2008, in addition to the previous guidelines, according to which, units, who have been granted import licences under SIL, or who are eligible for avail licences, in the current year, under the SIL, have been excluded. It is also alleged, that quantity of licence or entitlement of licence thereunder, is in accordance with gang saw machines installed in the premises. This Circular No. 13 has been produced as Annexure-4.


4. The precise challenge, for the above relief, is on the ground, that according to Annexure-4, the eligibility is based on the criteria being, units, who have installed marble gang saw machine, and the units should have been in operation since prior to 31-3-2001, and from out of this category, 100% EOU's, units in SEZ, and units who have been granted marble block import licence under previous licensing years, or are eligible to avail licence in the current licensing year (2008-09), under SIL category, has been excluded. Then, it has also been provided, that all eligible units as above, should have indigenous sales turn over of marble slabs/tiles of Rs. 1.00 crore and above in each of three financial years 2004-05, 2005-06, 2007-08 (2006-07). According to the petitioner, exclusion of those units, who have been granted licence under SIL, or who are eligible to avail licence in the current licensing year under SIL, is highly arbitrary and contrary to Foreign Trade Policy, unjust and unwarranted, particularly in wake of the fact, that in the Policy Circular No. 13, total entitlement for import licence is 3000 metric ton marble blocks/slabs for the first gang saw machine, and 1500 metric ton for additional gang saw machine. It is contended, that once the Central Government decides to permit import of such a huge quantity, based on manufacturing capacity, exclusion of the units obtaining import licence under SIL, is highly arbitrary and illegal. It is also contended, that the Government could and should have provided an option, to be exercised by an individual entrepreneur, either to apply and avail licence under Annexure-3, or Annexure-4. It is next contended, that Annexure-4 has been issued to give benefit to the particular sect of entrepreneurs, excluding the existing licence holders, under SIL category.


5. Reply has been filed on behalf of the respondents, contending inter alia, that Annexure-4 was issued, especially to redress the grievance of the entrepreneurs, who were not given the import licence under SIL Scheme, and the petitioner, who was, and is enjoying the benefits under SIL Scheme, cannot question, when the benefit is extended to those entrepreneurs, who were not enjoying the benefit under the SIL Scheme. It is also contended, that by Annexure-4, Government has broad based licensing, by including units, which were earlier not covered under the SIL Category. The policy has been devised in consultation with the various State Governments, and the representatives of the industries. It is contended, that if the option suggested by the petitioner is provided, very purpose of broad basing the eligible entities would be defeated. It is also contended that on the same consideration, 100% EOU units, and units in SEZ, have been excluded. It is denied that there is vast difference between the maximum quantity of import, given under the import licence to the petitioner, and the quantity to which the entrepreneur may be entitled, under Annexure-4, rather the quantity 3000 metric ton is upper most ceiling, which can be allowed to importers. Thus, the apprehension of the petitioner is unfounded.


6. Rejoinder has been filed by the petitioner, reiterating the averments of the writ petition. However, additional pleadings taken therein are, that the eligibility criteria of quota, to which each unit is entitled, are different under Annexures-3 and 4, inasmuch as under Annexure-3, the unit is entitled on the basis of eligible turnover of the previous year, whereas under Annexure-4, entitlement is according to the turnover and number of gang saw machines, installed in the unit before 2001.


7. During the pendency of this petition, certain applications have been filed by individual entrepreneurs, who are covered by Annexure-4, and accordingly, applied for grant of licence under Annexure-4, so also by some of the persons, who have been granted some licences, seeking their impleadment as party respondent of the writ petition. Replies to those applications have been filed, and before proceeding with the arguments on the main writ petition, we have heard learned counsel for the applicants, and in view of the averments contained at page 50 of the paper book, being internal page 5 of the rejoinder, the applications are allowed, and all the applicants are impleaded as party respondents.


8. Thereafter, we have heard learned counsels on the merits of the matter.


9. At the outset, it may be observed that by Annexure-4, the persons like petitioner, who have been enjoying, and are availing, import licences under the SIL, have not been, altogether excluded from their entitlement to get import licence, rather they continue to remain entitled to avail the licence under the SIL. Therefore, it cannot be said, that by issuing the policy scheme Annexure-4, the persons including the petitioner have been deprived to do their business or profession, within the meaning of Article 19(1)(g).


10. Coming to the aspect of the arbitrariness, as contended, it would suffice to say, that the upper ceiling of the total import has been fixed at 1.40 lacs metric ton, under Annexure-3, and identical upper limit has been fixed separately under Annexure-4, thus they do not overlap, in the manner, that one does not take away the share of other. Then much of the apprehension of the petitioner, is based on the entitlement to obtain licence up to 3000 metric ton on one gang saw machine, and 1500 metric ton for additional gang saw machine, may be taken up. From a combined reading of Annexures-3 and 4, it would be clear, that the eligibility to get the licence to the extent of quantity of marbles, to be imported under licence, to be availed under Annexure-3, depends on the figure to be worked out, on the basis of eligible turnover for the year 2007-08 i.e. the turnover of eligible firms for the year 2006-07, or the turnover of these firms for the year 2004-05 with the cap of 10%, whichever is less. Likewise, under Annexure-4, the eligibility of the unit for getting import licence is to be pro rata, on the basis of average indigenous sales turnover of marble slabs/tiles, only in the financial years 2004-05, 2005-06 and 2006-07. Thus, inherently and basically, the entitlement to import licence for particular quantity of marbles under both Annexure-3 and 4 is, relatable to the turnover of the firm concerned. Under Annexure-3, it is relatable to eligible turnover for the relevant years with a specified cap, while under Annexure-4, it is relatable to average indigenous sales turnover of the applicant concerned. Thus, more or less, the same criterion has been applied for determining the eligibility, viz. depending on the turnover, under Annexure-3 and Annexure-4 respectively. Then so far as the limit of 3000 metric ton for one marble gang saw, and 1500 metric ton for additional gang saw is concerned, it is clear, that this is the upper most overall ceiling for each individual applicant. Significantly, under Annexure-3, no such overall ceiling has been prescribed. Obviously, with the result, that a person, falling under Annexure-3, in a given case, may even be eligible for import licence for marble, to an extent, for beyond the one permissible under Annexure-4.


11. Thus, it cannot be said, that the policy, being Annexure-4, is either arbitrary or irrational. May be, that in given individual case, for the individual entrepreneur, at a given point of time, and for given reason also, Annexure-4 may appear to be more beneficial than Annexure-3, but then, for deciding the validity of Annexure-4, that alone cannot be considered. We have to consider the two policies Annexure-3 and Annexure-4 on their own, and consider the various aspects thereof, as considered above. However with a view to satisfy our ultimate judicial conscience, we asked the rough figures, from the respondents about the number of persons having licences, or having applied under the two policy circulars, and we have been informed, that the number of persons enjoying licence under SIL, is around or less than 30, while the persons applying for, or having granted licences under Annexure-4 far exceed 100. It would suffice to observe, that the ultimate upper limit of import under Annexure-3, as well as Annexure-4, is 1.40 lacs metric ton. It is simply required to be comprehended, that on the one hand, as per Annexure 3, the total quantity 1.40 lacks metric ton is available for obtaining import licence, to the persons numbering around 30, on the other hand, same quantity of goods is available for obtaining import licence to persons, under Annexure-4, far outnumber 100. This, by itself, is enough to dispel all contentions, regarding arbitrariness, irrationality of Annexure-4.


12. The writ petition thus lacks merit, and is, therefore, dismissed summarily.

Equivalent 2009 (235) ELT 0773 (Raj.)

ACTO, ANTI EV.-I, CHITTORGARH v MS. SHRI NARAIN RAM GOPAL RAWAT - CR Case No. 1235 of 2002 [2007] RD-RJ 5217 (30 October 2007)

ACTO, ANTI EV.-I, CHITTORGARH v MS. SHRI NARAIN RAM GOPAL RAWAT - CR Case No. 1235 of 2002 [2007] RD-RJ 5217 (30 October 2007)

S.B. Civil (ST) Revision No.1235/2002

ACTO, Chittorgarh vs

M/s. Shri Narayan Ram Gopal Rawat, Dausa

Date of order : 30.10.2007

HON'BLE MR. PRAKASH TATIA, J.

Mr.VK Mathur ]

Mr.Rishabh Sancheti ], for the petitioner.

Heard learned counsel for the petitioner as nobody appeared on behalf of the respondent despite service.

Learned counsel for the petitioner submits that the controversy is squarely covered by the judgment of the Hon'ble Apex Court delivered in the case of

Guljag Industries Vs. Commercial Taxes Officer reported in (2007) 7 SCC 269.

In view of the above, revision petition deserves to be allowed, hence, allowed. The order of the Tax

Board dated 6th March, 2002 as well as the order of the Dy. Commissioner (Appeal), Commercial Taxes,

Jaipur dated 8th July, 1999 are set aside.

(PRAKASH TATIA), J. c.p.goyal/-

Daily Excelsior

12th Stetson Environment Moot Court competition
Preliminary, quarterfinal rounds held on second day

Excelsior Correspondent

JAMMU, Sept 29: In the ongoing 12th Stetson Environmental Moot Court competition being held at University of Jammu (JU), the first two rounds of preliminary Moot Court sessions followed by quarter-final rounds were held today.

All the participants remained busy and absorbed during the first two rounds of preliminary sessions. Those who conducted the preliminary Moot Court benches included D S Chauhan, Sindhu Sharma, Shaikh Shakeel, Shaista Hakim, Wasim Nargal, Sabina Saleem, Raman Sharma, Rishab Sancheti, S K Shukla, Jasmeet Egan, Abhinav Sharma, Lisbeth Lanvers, Suresh Sharma, Aude Shiron, Ajay Sharma, Ajay Gulati, Stephanie Corbiere, Sabina Saleem and KS Johal.

In all, eight teams out of the total 24 qualified for quarter-finals through preliminary rounds. The panel of judges who conducted the quarter final round included B S Salathia, Kamal Saini, Jasmeet Egan, P N Raina, Vinod Gupta, Siddharth Gupta, Seema Shekhar, Ajay Gulati, Rishabh Sancheti, Subhash Bhat, Shakti Gupta and Lisbeth Lanvers.

The semifinal and final bench hearings of the competition will be held tomorrow in Zorawar Singh Auditorium, JU.

Union of India versus Amit Kumar Maheshwari

From: http://www.taxmann.net/Datafolder/flash/flashjud28012009_2.htm


HIGH COURT OF RAJASTHAN, JODHPUR BENCH

Union of India

v.

Amit Kumar Maheshwari

N.P. GUPTA AND KISHAN SWAROOP CHAUDHARI, JJ.

CENTRAL EXCISE APPEAL NOS. 70 & 74 OF 2006 AND 3, 26 & 54 OF 2007

DECEMBER 8, 2008

Section 80 of the Finance Act, 1994, read with section 37B of the Central Excise Act, 1944 - Penalty - Not to be imposed in certain cases - Whether Extraordinary Taxpayer Friendly Scheme issued vide D.O.F. No. 137/39/2004-CX-4 dated 20-9-2004 cannot be said to be statutory notification issued in exercise of power under section 37B and was only an administrative instruction issued to provide benefit to persons who had earlier failed to register themselves with department - Held, yes - Whether in view of above scheme, even if a person comes forward to apply for registration, and pays all arrears of tax and interest, before cut off date, i.e., 30-10-2004, he is conferred immunity from any sort of penalty - Held, yes - Whether, therefore, in that view of matter it cannot be said, that such immunity should be denied to person who had already got himself registered before promulgation of that Scheme - Held, yes [Paras 8, 9 & 42]

Circulars & Notifications : Government of India, Ministry of Finance D.O.F. No. 137/39/2004-CX4, dated 20-9-2004

Facts

The CBEC through Circular dated 20-9-2004 issued an amnesty scheme. The assessees were registered before promulgation of that scheme. They deposited their tax amount along with interest before expiry of the period provided in the aforesaid Amnesty Scheme, being 30-10-2004. However, penalty proceedings were initiated against the assessees. When the matters came before the Tribunal, it held that the assessees were entitled to the benefit of the scheme and, thus, the penalty imposed was set aside.

On appeal :

Held

There was no scheme, rather it was only a communication in the form of D.O. letter, from the Government of India, Ministry of Finance, Department of Revenue, Central Board of Excise and Customs, addressed to the Chief Commissioners, and enclose therewith certain proformas of application for registration, acknowledgement and declaration. [Para 7]

If the said scheme, or the communication dated 20-9-2004 is read in conjunction with section 37B, it is clear that same is not covered by section 37B. The communication emanated from the Hon’ble Finance Minister, who had launched extraordinary taxpayer friendly scheme, while section 37B does not envisage launching of any such scheme, rather it comprehends powers of the Board (Central Board of Excise and Customs) wherever it considers it necessary or expedient so to do, for the purpose of uniformity in the classification of excisable goods, or with respect to levy of duties of excise on such goods, issue such orders, instructions and directions. In addressing communication dated 20-9-2004 the Central Excise Board had not even purported to consider any expediency or necessity, for the purpose of uniformity with respect to levy of duties of excise on such goods, to issue such orders, instructions and directions. Simply because the desire of the Hon’ble Finance Minister was published through conduit pipe of the Central Excise Board, it did not have the effect of clothing it with statutory powers, or to attach to it statutory efficacy available consequent upon section 37 and section 37B. Thus, it could not be said to be statutory notification, issued in exercise of powers under section 37B. [Para 8]

It was only an administrative instruction, issued by the Hon’ble Finance Minister, purportedly, to provide benefit to the persons, who earlier failed to register themselves with the department, and in substance was intended to cast the net of service tax wider and wider, and in order to augment the revenue, the concessions provided in the communication were sought to be thrown open. Obviously, therefore, the communication had to be read, interpreted, understood, and appreciated, with this spirit, viz., to provide benefit to the defaulters on the one hand, and to cast the net of service tax wider and wider, so also to augment the revenue, on the other hand. [Para 9]

With this preface, it might also be noticed that the term ‘Scheme’ as such has very many parameters to be complied with, while in the present case the communication simply conveyed launching of some extraordinary taxpayer friendly scheme, and no such scheme had seen the light of the day, except that communication, which only enclosed therewith certain proformas. As such it could not be said to be any ‘Scheme’, in true sense of the term. [Para 10]

It is the consistently established legal position, laid down by various Tribunals of the country, that in those cases, where the assessee was registered even before the commencement of the Amnesty Scheme, and had paid all dues of tax and interest before the cut off date given in the scheme, being 30-10-2004, he would be entitled to the benefit of the Amnesty Scheme. And, therefore, there was no occasion for instant High Court to unsettle the settled position, and now gave rise to upheaval, to generate litigation, even in the matters, which stood closed. [Para 38]

Even if the matter on merits was considered the communication dated 20-9-2004 was only an administrative instruction issued for the benefit of the service providers, who volunteered to get themselves registered, and had discharged all their liabilities of tax and interest, up to the cut off date, for providing immunity from penalty. That was beneficial part of the instruction for the service providers, while it was sought to be beneficial to the State, i.e. the revenue, viz., it was intended to cast the net of the service tax wider and wider, and to augment the revenue. Thus, the instruction was calculated with the motive to benefit both sides, the service provider as well as the revenue, and as such, was not a taxing statute. Therefore, it was required to be implemented in the manner, which was not discriminatory, and which was reasonable, obviously to both the parties. [Para 39]

If considered from that stand point, when the person who has not got registered till issuance of the communication, if is intended to be given the benefit of immunity from penalty, the person who has already got himself registered, and is in the default of payment of interest or tax, cannot be denied the immunity from penalty, provided of course, he strictly complies with the requirement of the communication, with regard to deposit of the amount, positively before the cut off date. [Para 40]

The communication was of 20-9-2004. In some judgments it had been referred to as 22-9-2004, while in some judgments it had been referred to as 23-9-2004. There might be a controversy, as to what was the starting point of the scheme, i.e., 20-9-2004 or 23-9-2004, or from the date the person concerned came in knowledge of it. The significance of that confusion was that if the interpretation sought to be projected by the revenue was taken, and if it was considered that the scheme commenced on 23-9-2004, then even the person, who might have got himself registered on 21-9-2004, and happened to be defaulter, would have to be denied the benefit of immunity, or even the person who got himself registered on 22-9-2004, and was a defaulter, would have to be denied the benefit of immunity, while on the other hand if it was taken to have commenced on 20-9-2004, then such person would get the benefit of immunity. Thus, the person even without knowledge of the scheme may have got himself registered on 21-9-2004, and would be in dilemma as to whether he was to get benefit of the immunity or not, such interpretation could not be put on the Amnesty Scheme. Obviously the communication dated 20-9-2004 did not prescribe the precise starting point of time of the scheme. [Para 41]

Carrying the things further logically, if the scheme was taken to have commenced on 20-9-2004, then the benefit was available to the person who gets himself registered on 20-9-2004, despite being defaulter for any length of time. The benefit could not be denied to a person who may be merely technically defaulter, and who in good sense, thought it proper to get himself registered on 19-9-2004 itself, and did not allow his default to continue for one more day. The interpretation sought to be projected by the revenue did not, thus, stand the scrutiny. On the other hand, a proper reading of the communication only showed that it was intended to provide immunity to the defaulters, who chose to deposit the arrears of tax and interest by the cut off date, and obviously, since for payment or deposit of the amount, the formalities of registration and declaration were necessary, the forms had been enclosed with the communication, and it had been directed that the declaration would be accepted, and they would be given spot registration without any sort of questions. Much of the stress laid on the requirement of submitting declaration could not be accepted for the simple reason that the forms were prescribed under the relevant Rules of Service Tax itself, the Application Form being ST-1, Acknowledgement also forming part of the same form. So far declaration proforma was concerned, if it were to be read, it would show that it was only in the nature of forwarding letter of the application for registration, and nothing beyond that. Thus, all that this so-called scheme meant was that even if a person came forward to apply for registration, and had paid all arrears of tax and interest, before cut off date, he was conferred with immunity from any sort of penalty. In that view of the matter, it cannot be said that the immunity should be denied to the person who had already got himself registered. [Para 42]

It was clearly mentioned that the scheme aimed to register all service providers on the basis of declaration, and with this, with conjunctive words ‘and who had earlier failed to register themselves’. The words ‘having earlier failed to register’ cannot be confined to mean earlier to 20-9-2004, or 23-9-2004, but are required to mean, or construed to mean, ‘who failed to register at appropriate time as required by the Act’. [Para 43]

Thus, considering the matter from any aspect whatever the view taken in CCE v. Mankodi Enterprises [2006] 3 STT 397 (Delhi - CESTAT) and Pankaj Oil Trading Corpn. v. CCE [2007] 9 STT 211 (New Delhi - CESTAT) could not be accepted, and the view taken in all other cases relied on by the assessees were required to be accepted. It was to be held, that the benefit of the circular dated 20-9-2004, did very much cover the case of the present assessees, as well. [Para 44]

Case review

Tele Tech Communication v. CCE [MANU/CE/8215/2007, dated 4-6-2007], Laxmichand Dharshi v. CCE [MANU/CM/7027/2006, dated 17-10-2006], AR.Sandeep C. Sikchi v. CCE [MANU/CM/353/2006, dated 4-9-2006], Arc. Dinesh Burad v. CCE & C [2008] 12 STT 47 (Mum. - CESTAT), CCE v. R.S. Vora [MANU/CM/334/2008, dated 27-6-2008], Care Electronics Ltd. v. CCE [2007] 10 STT 91 (Ahd. - CESTAT), CCE v. Kamlesh Kumar Agrawal [2008] 15 STT 490 (New Delhi - CESTAT), CCE v. R.K. Electronic Cable Network [2006] 3 STT 418 (New Delhi - CESTAT), Jay Security Services v. CC, CE & ST [2008] 15 STT 500 (Ahd. - CESTAT) and CCE v. Bharat Security Services & Worker’s Cont. [2007] 7 STT 13 (New Delhi - CESTAT) approved (para 44)

Pankaj Oil Trading Corpn. v. CCE [2007] 9 STT 211 (New Delhi - CESTAT) and CCE v. Mankodi Enterprises [2006] 3 STT 397 (New Delhi - CESTAT) disapproved (para 44).

Cases referred to

CCE v. Bharat Security Services & Worker’s Cont. [2007] 7 STT 13 (New Delhi - CESTAT) (para 4), Amit Kumar Maheshwari v. CCE [2006] 4 STT 303 (New Delhi - CESTAT) (para 4), CST v. Parson Tools & Plants AIR 1975 SC 1039 (para 12), Bharti Telecom Ltd. v. Commissioner of Customs AIR 2002 SC 74 (para 13), Union of India v. Wood Papers Ltd. [1990] 4 SCC 256 (para 15), CIT v. Modi Spg. & Wvg. Mills Co. Ltd. [1990] 53 Taxman 584 (SC) (para 16), Tele Tech Communication v. CCE [MANU/CE/8215/2007, dated 4-6-2007] (para 19), Laxmichand Dharshi v. CCE [2007] 7 STT 79 (Mum. - CESTAT) (para 20), AR. Sandeep C. Sikchi v. CCE [MANU/CM/353/2006, dated 4-9-2006] (para 21), Arc. Dinesh Burad v. CCE & C [2008] 12 STT 47 (Mum. - CESTAT) (para 22), CCE v. R.S. Vora [MANU/CM/334/2008, dated 27-6-2008] (para 23), Care Electronics Ltd. v. CCE [2007] 10 STT 91 (Ahd. - CESTAT) (para 24), CCE v. Kamlesh Kumar Agrawal [2008] 15 STT 490 (New Delhi - CESTAT) (para 25), CCE v. R.K. Electronic Cable Network [2006] 3 STT 418 (New Delhi - CESTAT) (para 26), Jay Security Services v. CC, CE & ST [2008] 15 STT 500 (Ahd. - CESTAT) (para 27), CCE v. Mankodi Enterprises [2006] 3 STT 397 (New Delhi - CESTAT) (para 27), Pankaj Oil Trading Corpn. v. CCE [2007] 9 STT 211 (New Delhi - CESTAT) (para 27), Soldiers Industrial Security Agencies v. CCE & C [2008] 12 STT 254 (Mum. - CESTAT) (para 27), CCE v. Industrial Army [2008] 16 STT 341 (New Delhi - CESTAT) (para 29) and C.K. Gangadharan v. CIT [2008] 172 Taxman 87 (SC) (para 37).

V.K. Mathur and Rishabh Sancheti for the Appellant. Vikas Balia and Tribhuvan Gupta for the Respondent.